Q01

MCQ1 mark, −0.33

The statement $\left ( ¬p \right ) \Rightarrow \left ( ¬q \right )$ is logically equivalent to which of the statements below? I only I and IV only II only II and III only

(A)

$p \Rightarrow q$

(B)

$q \Rightarrow p$

(C)

$\left ( ¬q \right ) \vee p$

(D)

$\left ( ¬p \right ) \vee q$

Loading…